ప్రతి పరీక్షకి పాత ప్రశ్న పత్రాలను పరిశీలించడం చాలా అవసరం. సబ్జెక్టు ఒకటే అయినా పరీక్ష పరీక్షకి ప్రశ్నల తీరు మారుతుంటుంది. వివిధ పరీక్షలకి ప్రాధాన్యాల విధానం కూడా వేర్వేరుగా ఉంటుంది. ఆయా పరీక్షల సరళి ఎలా ఉంటోంది? ఏయే పరీక్షలకి ఏయే అంశాలపై దృష్టి కేంద్రీకరించి చదువుకోవాలి... తదితర విషయాలను తెలుసుకోవాలంటే గతంలో జరిగిన పరీక్షల ప్రశ్నపత్రాలను విశ్లేషించుకోవాలి. అందుకోసమే పాతప్రశ్న పత్రాలను అందిస్తున్నాం. అభ్యర్థులు తమ అధ్యయనాన్ని మెరుగు పరచుకోడానికి వీటిని వినియోగించుకోవచ్చు.
JUNIOR CIVIL JUDGE (SCREENING TEST)
(Held on 21st, June 2009)
Time : 2 Hours Marks: 100
Paper - 1
1. According to sec. 2(b) of Cr.P.C, 1973, 'Charge' includes -
(a) Heading of Charge
(b) Any head of charge when the charge contains head
(c) Any head of charge when the charge contains more heads than one
(d) All the above
2. As per the Amendment Act, 2008 of Cr.P.C, the new definition that was inserted
under Sec. 2(wa) is -
(a) Audio-Video Electronic means (b) Victim
(c) Victim Compensation (d) Victim Compensation Scheme
3. The examination of a witness by the adverse party is -
(a) Examination-in-chief (b) Cross Examination
(c) Re-examination (d) Oral Examination
4. Facts not otherwise relevant are relevant if by themselves or in connection with
other facts they make the existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly
probable or improbable is relevant under
(a) Sec. 9 of Evidence Act (b) Sec. 10 of Evidence Act
(c) Sec. 11 of Evidence Act (d) Sec. 12 of Evidence Act
5. State the correct sequence:
(a) Issue, Trial, Arguments, Pleadings, Decree, Judgement
(b) Pleadings, Trial, Issues, Arguments, Decree, Judgement
(c) Pleadings, Issues, Arguments, Trial Judgement Decree
(d) Pleadings, Issues, Trial Arguments, Judgement, Decree
6. During the pendency of a suit relating to a house, the defendant is about to leave
the local limits of the Court with an intension to delay the suit. The plaintiff files
an application under Order 38-Rule 1 for the arrest of the defendant. Now the
defedant -
(a) Cannot be arrested (b) Can be arrested
7. When the immovable property of one person is, by the act of parties or operation
of law, made security for the payment of money to another, such transaction is -
(a) Pledge (b) Accession (c) Mortgage (d) Charge
8.
A gift made in expectation of death is know as -
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(a) Universal Gift (b) Onerous Gift
(c) Resumable Gift (d) Donatio mortis causa
9. A Contract to do or not to do something, if some event collateral to such contract
does not happen, is known as -
(a) Wagering Agreement (b) Quasi Contract
(c) Contingent Contract (d) Impossible Contract
10. An agreement where the parties express opposite views regarding an uncertain
event and which results into a gain to one person at the loss of another person, is
known as -
(a) Wagering Agreement (b) Contingent Contract
(c) Continuing Agreement (d) Standing form Contract
11. When an instrument in writing does not express the real intention of the parties due
to fraud or mutual mistake of the parties, a suit can be instituted for -
(a) Cancellation of Instrument (b) Rectification of Instrument
(c) Declaration of Instrument (d) Rescission of Contract
12. What is the time limit to institute a suit for recovery of the property on the basis
of dispossession under the provisions of C.P.C. when the plaintiff was dispossed
of a house by the defendant?
(a) 60 days from the date of dispossession
(b) 6 months from the date of dispossession
(c) 6 years from the date of dispossession
(d) None of the above
13. The involvement of Five or more persons is essential for the offence of .....
(a) Theft (b) Extortion (c) Roberry (d) Decoity
14. Three persons A, B & C went to a Bank. A stood outside the bank holding a
revolver with him and watching at the road. B & C entered the bank and asked the
Cashier by showing revolvers at him, to handover the cash to them. On the refusal
to do so, C shot at the Cashier and took away money from Counter. Now ........
(a) C is liable for the murder and A & B are liable for abetment.
(b) B & C are liable for murder and A is liable for abetment.
(c) A, B & C are liable for murder.
(d) None of them is liable because it is not a murder but only culpable homicide
not amounting to murder.
15. 'Sans recourse indorsement' means -
(a) Indorsement with limited liability. (b) Indorsement without liability.
(c) Indorsement with absolute liability.
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(d) Indorsement with conditional liability.
16. What is the punishment under Sec. 138 of N.I. Act.
(a) Imprisoment upto 2 years or with fine which may extend to twice the amount
of cheque or with both.
(b) Imprisonment upto 2 years and with fine which may extend to twice the
amount of cheque.
(c) Imprisonment for not less than 2 years and fine of Rs.10,000.
(d) Imprisonment for not less than 2 years or fine of Rs.10,000 - or with both.
17. The limitation period for enforcement of a perpetual injunction is -
(a) 1 year (b) 3 years (c) 12 years
(d) None of the above.
18. What is true with regard to application of Limitation Act, 1963?
(i) It has no application to sec. 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
(ii) This Act shall not apply to any suit or other proceeding relating to marriage
and divorce.
(iii) Where any special or local law prescribes for any suit, appeal or application
a period of limitation different from the period prescribed by the schedule, the
provisions of Sec. 3 shall apply as if such period where the period prescribed
by the schedule.
(iv) The provisions of Section 4 to 24 shall apply, unless expressly barred by special
or local law.
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct. (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(c) (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct. (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
19. An easement right is a right-
(a) in rem (b) in personam
20. Of the following, which is not a mode of acquiring easement?
(a) Easement by law (b) Easement by grant
(c) Easement by prescription (d) Easement by necessity
21. Whether Principle of res judicita applies to claim petitions under Order 21, Rule
58?
(a) No (b) Yes
22. X files a suit against Y and when the suit is called on for hearing neither party
appeared in the Court. The Court dismissed the suit under Order 9, Rule 3.
thereafter X may -
(a) File a fresh suit, subject to the law of limitation.
(b) Apply to the Court for restoring the suit by showing or sufficient cause.
(c) both (a) and (b)
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(d) neither (a) nor (b)
23. Every Police Officer making an investigation shall enter day to day proceeding
for a case in a Diary Called
a) General Diary b) Special diary
c) Duty Diary d) Case Diary
24. Mr. Kumar voluntarily causes hurt to Gowtham. Gowtham goes to Police Station
to lodge F.I.R. The concerned Police Officer refuses to record the F.I.R. whether
the act of the Police Officer is valid?
(a) No (b) Yes
25. Khan commits an offence of grievous hurt in Hyderabad. However, he makes a
confession before the Judicial Magistrate at Adilabad, who has no power to try the
case. Whether the confession recorded, after following the procedure, by the
Magistrate is valid?
(a) No (b) Yes
26. The limitation Act, 1963 applies to the proceedings before -
a) Courts b) Executive Authority
c) Quasi-Judicial Tribunals d) none of the above
27. Section 5 of the Limitation Act deals with
a) Bar of Limitation.
b) Extension of prescribed period in certain cases.
c) Doctrine of Legal Disability. d) None of the above.
28. The provision of improvements made by bonafide holders under defective title is
dealt in
a) Sec. 50 of T.P. Act b) Sec. 51 of T.P. Act
c) Sec 53 of T.P. Act. d) None of the above
29. Of the following which is misfit matching:
(a) Sec. 81 of T.P. Act - Marshalling Securities.
b) Sec. 82 of T.P. Act - Doctrine of Contribution.
c) Sec. 92 of T.P. Act. - Doctrine of Subrogation.
d) Sec. 93 of T.P. Act - Charge.
30. According to section 60 of T.P. Act, a clog on redemption is
a) valid subject to certain conditions b) absolutely valid
c) voidable d) None of the above
31. Of the following which is a misfit matching
a) Agreement to supply goods from time to time - Continuing Offer
b) Responsibility of Finder of Lost goods - Agent
c) Betting Agreement - Wagering Agreement.
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d) An agreement to pay Rs.100/-, if it rains on Sunday - Contingent Contract
32. A Contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him
by the conduct of the promisor himself or by the conduct of any other person, is called
a) Contract of Guarantee b) Contract of Insurance
c) Contract of Bailment d) Contract of Indemnity
33. According to Section 69 of Indian Partnership Act, 1932, an unregistered firm can
file a suit against an outsider for recovery of an amount not exceeding Rs.100/-
(a) Yes (b) No
34. 'An Agency coupled with interest' can be revoked by Principal
(a) Yes (b) No
35. Doctrine of estoppel can be applied against a minor
(a) No (b) Yes
36. As per Sec. 3 of Indian Evidence Act, Fact means and includes ......
a) Physical Facts b) Psychological Facts.
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) or nor (b)
37. Can an evidence obtained by committing the offence of theft be admitted in a case
of criminal nature?
(a) Yes (b) No
38. A tape record of speech is .........
(a) Documentary Evidence (b) Oral Evidence
39. Mr. Lallu, an accused writes a letter, in his own handwriting with his signature,
addressing a Police Officer that he murdered his wife. The letter was found near
the dead body of his wife. Is the confession made by Lallu in the letter admissible
in evidence against him?
a) Yes, the letter is relevant b) No, it is not relevent
40. Mr. Bhallu is accused of a Murder. The police have produced an aex from a place
and he said that it was the weapon with which the deceased was killed.
Whether this statement made by him is relevant under Sec. 27 of Evidence Act?
a) Yes, it is relevant to the extent of axe.
b) No, it is not relevant as Sec. 27 is not applicable to the present case.
41. Mr. Varlu fires at Venkat with an intention to kill him. Venkat sustains serious
injuries. He lodges a F.I.R. against Varlu and subsequently, Venkat dies due to
injuries.
Whether this F.I.R. can be treated as dying declaration.
a) Yes, the F.I.R. can be treated as dying declaration.
b) No. it is not a statement made by him regarding his death.
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42. How many witnesses are required to prove a Criminal case beyond all reasonable
doubts?
a) minimum Two b) minimum Three
c) minimum four d) None of the above
43. 'Any Question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects
to receive' is called.
a) Patent Question b) Latent Question
c) Leading Question d) Misleading Question
44. As per Sec. 5 of the Evidence Act, evidence can be adduced relating to a
a) Fact in issue b) relevant fact
c) Both (a) & (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b)
45. Under Sec. 3 of the Evidence Act, evidence means .........
a) Documentary Evidence b) Occular Evidence
c) Neither (a) nor (b) d) Both (a) & (b)
46. As per Sec. 167(5) Cr.P.C. a Magistrate can pass an order of stopping further
investigation and discharge the accused, in a summons case, if the investigation is
not completed within a period of ............. months from the date on which the
accused was arrested.
a) 2 Months b) 3 Months
c) 6 Months d) None of these
47. As per Sec. 357-A of Cr. P.C (Amendment Act, 2008) Who is the authority to
decide the Quantum of Compensation payable to the victim?
a) The Trial Court b) The Sessions Court
c) The High Court d) The district or State Legal Service Authority
48. Whta is true with regard to plea bargaining?
a) It has application where offence attracts imprisonment exceeding 7years
b) It is applicable where the offence affect Socio-economic Conditions of the
Country
c) Plea bargaining will not be allowed where the offence has been committed
against a Woman, or a Child below where the offence
d) All the above
49. Whenever a case is tried summarily, the sentence of imprisonment shall not exceed
a) 2 Months b) 3 Months
c) 6 Months d) None of these
50. A, B and C are charged by a Magistrate of 1 Class with, and convicted by him of,
robbing D, A, B & C were afterwards charged with and tried for decoity on the
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same facts. Now -
a) They can take protection under Sec. 300 Cr. PC
b) They cannot take protection under Sec. 300 Cr.PC
51. A and B are the joint owners of a horse. A takes the horse of B's possession intending
to use it However, A sells the horse and appropriates the whole proceeds to his
own use. Now A is guilty of
a) No offence b) Criminal Breach of Trust
c) Mischief d) Dishonest Misappropriation
52. A & B are the Joint Owners of a horse A Shoots intending thereby to cause wrongful
loss to B now A is guilty of -
a) No offence b) Mischief
c) Criminal Breach of Trust d) Criminal Misappropriation
53. Sec.84 of I.P.C provides for -
a) Medical Insanity b) Legal Insanity
c) Both Medical and Legal Insanity d) None of the above
54. Abetment under Sec. 107 I.P.C can be constituteda)
Instigation b) Conspiracy
c) Intentional Aid d) All the above
55. Rama, an Officer of a Court of Justice, was ordered by the court Arrest Raheem,
After due enquiry beliving Raheemuddin to be Raheem, Rama arrest
Raheemuddin. Rama is exempt from Criminal Liability under
a)Sec.76 I.P.C. b) Sec. 78 I.P.C.
c) Sec. 79 I.P.C. d) None of the above
56. When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the public tranquility,
they are said to commit the offence of
a) Affray b) Rioting
c) Public Nuisance d) All the above
57. Sec. 34 of I.P.C.
a) Creates a substantive offence b) is a rule of evidence
58. Culpable homicide is not murder, if it is committed under
a) grave and sudden provocation b) Self- intoxication
c) irresistable impulse d) All the above
59. For a unlawful assembly under sec. 141 I.P.C the minimum number of persons
required is
a) Two b) Three c) Five d) Seven
60. Causing disappearance of evidence of offence or, giving false information to
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screen to screen offender, is an offence under
a) Sec. 200 I.P.C. b) Sec. 201 I.P.C.
c) Sec. 202 I.P.C. d) Sec. 203. I.P.C.
61. What is the punishment for the offence of Theft?
a) Imprisonment upto 3 years and fine
b) Imprisonment of not less than 3 years and fine
c) Imprisonment 3years or fine
d) Imprisonment up to 3years or fine or with both
62. Can there be more than one preliminary decree and one final decree?
a) Yes b) No
63. Whether Doctrine of legal disablity applies to Pre-emption Suits?
a) Yes b) No
64. Whether an'interpleader' suit can be instistuted by the agent aganist princiopal?
a) Yes b) No
c) Yes, when a third party claims right through principal
65. Whether an ex-parte decree can be challenged by way of appeal?
a) No b) Yes
66. When a material proposition of fact of law is affirmed by one party and denied by
the other, it is known as
a) An assertion b) An allegation
c) An admission d) An issue
67. Mr. Vinod of Adilabad makes a proposal to sell his house, situated in vikarabad,
to vikram of Nizamabad. In the sale agreement they provide a clause stating that
all disputes arising out of the transactions are to be decided by the Court of
Nizamabad. There after when a dispute arises Vikram must file a suit.
a) In the Court of Adilabad b) In the Court of Nizamabad
c) In the Court of Vikarabad d) All the above
68. Every Warrant of Arrest issued by a Court remains in force for
a) 6 months b) 1 year c) 3 years
d) None of the above
69. According to Order VI C.P.C 'pleading' shall meana)
Plaint b) Written Statement
c) Plaint and Written Statement d) Plaint or Written Statement
70. Under Sec. 167 Cr. P.C, the nature of custody can be changed from judicial custody
to police custodya)
During the period of first 14 days b) During the period of first 15 days
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c) During the period of first 30 days d) None of the above
71. If a Plaintiff fails to sue for the whole of the claim which he is entitled to make in
respect of a cause of action in the first suit then he is precluded from suing again
respect of portion so omitted, by virtue of
a) Sec. 11 of C.P.C b) Explanation IV of Sec. II
c) Order II, Rule 2 d) Order II, Rule 3
72. A suit for possession of immovable property on the basis of previous possession
and not on the basis of title can be filed under Sec. 6 of S.R. Act, 1963
a) Within 3 months of dispossession
b) Within 6 months of dispossession
c) Within 1 year of dispossession
d) Within 6 years of dispossession
73. Confession of one accused is admissible against Co- accused
a) If they are tried for different offences but jointly
b) If they are tried for same offences but jointly
c) If they are tried for same offences but not jointly
d) If they are tired for different offences but not jointly
74. In execution of a money decree for Rs. 2,000/- the Civil Prision shall be
a) Not exceeding 6 weeks b) Not exceeding 3months
c) Not exceeding 6 months d) None of the above
75. Whether an objection as to jurisdiction relating to subject matters (Competency)
can be raised before the supreme court without being in the trial court or first
appellate court?
a) No b) Yes
76. In connection with Commercial transactions what should be tha rate of interest
from the date of decree to the date of payment?
a) Not exceding 6%
b) Exceeding 6% but not exceeding Contractual rate if any
c) Not exceeding the Contractual rate and in the absence of it the rate at which
moneys are lent by nationalised banks in relation to commercial transaction.
d) Not exceeding 18%
77. The amount of Compensatory Costs under Sec. 35-A, C.P.C . shall not exceed
a) Rs. 1000/- b) Rs. 3000/- c) Rs. 5,000/- d) No such limit
78. Of the following which cannot be attached in execution of a Decree
a) Money b) Hundies c) Books of Accounts d) Bank Notes
79. When a Plaint is rejected by the Court under Order VII, Rule 11, the plaintiff can
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a) Prefer an appeal
b) Present a fresh plaint in respect of the same cause of action
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Nether (A) nor (b)
80. When Commission is issued under 18, Rule 4 for examination of witness, within
what period the Commissioner shall submit his report?
a) Within 30 days b) Within 60days
c) Within 60 days or within the extended period
d) No such time limit
81. When an application is made by the J.dr, after the decree is passed, for payment of
decretal amount in installment for the order of installment payment whether Court
should take the Consent of the D.hr?
a) Yes b) No
82. Whether the purchaser of a Property in execution sale can make an application for
set aside the sale on the ground that the J.dr had no saleable interest in the property
sold?
a) Yes, he can make application under Order 21- Rule 89
b) Yes, he can make application under Order 21- Rule 90
c) Yes, he can make application under Order 21- Rule 91
d) No, as he is purchase he cannot get the sale set aside
83. When the next friend or guardian of a minor wants to enter into any agreement or
Compromise on behalf of the minor, whether the leave of the Court is mandatory?
a) No b) Yes
84. When an ad interim injunction is granted by the Court within what period the
application shall be disposed of?
a) within 30 days from the date of injunction
b) within 3 months from the date of injunction
c) within 1 Year from the injunction
d) No such time is prescribed.
85. Under which provision of law, the Appellate Court can adduce the additional evidence?
a) Under Order 41, Rule 23 b) Under Order 41, Rule 25
c) Under Order 41, Rule 27 d) Under Order 41, Rule 29
86. Of the following which are compulsorly attestable documents?
a) Sale deed and Mortgage deed b) Mortgage deed and Lease deed
c) Gift deed and Lease deed d) Mortgage deed and Gift deed
87. In case of a transfer hit by "Doctrine of lis pendens' the question of good faith of
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the vendee is
a) Relevant b) Irrlevant
88. If case of Gift, if the donee dies before acceptance, then the gift is
a) Valid b) Void c) Reduced
d) Court has to decide
89. Who cannot be arrested in execution of Money Decree?
a) A Woman
b) A Magistrate while going to and coming from the Court or in the Court.
c) An Advocate while going to and coming from the Court or in the Court.
d) All the above
90. A declaratory decree passed under Sec. 34 of S.R.Act, 1963 operates -
a) Jus in rem b) Jus in personam
91. Whether an injunction can be granted in a case where for the breach of the
Contract Specific performance cannot be granted?
a) No b) Yes
92. According to Sec.5 of the T.P.Act, 1882- living person includes a Company or
Association or Body of individuals -
a) Which is incorporated b) Whether incorporated or not
93. According to Sec.6(e) of the T.P.Act, Right to sue for a certain sum of money.
a) Is not transferable b) Is transferable
94. In a contract of sale of goods, a stipulation essential to the main purpose of the
Contract is known as -
a) Warranty b) guarantee c) clog d) condition
95. As per Sec.34 of A.P. Tenancy (Telengana Area) Act, 1950, Protected tenant means
a person who has the land continuously for a period not less than -
a) 5 Years b) 6 Years c) 7 Years d) 8 Years
96. Under A.P. Escheats and Bona Vacantia Act, 1974, bona vacantia applies to the
property -
a) For which there is no rightful owner
b) For which the owner dies intestate (without legal heirs)
97. Which section of the A.P. Buildings (Lease, Rent and Eviction) control Act, 1960
provides the grounds for eviction of a tenant?
a) Sec.8 b) Sec.9 c) Sec.10 d) Sec.11
98. According to which section of A.P. Gaming Act, 1974 'Game of Skill' is not an
offence under the Act?
a) Sec.12 b) Sec.13 c) Sec.14 d) Sec.15
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99. Under A.P. Pawn Brokers Act, 2002 carrying on Pawn Broking business without
licence is an offence punishable for -
a) Imprisonment for not less than 1 Year and upto 3 years and fine upto 50,000/-
b) Imprisonment upto 3 Years and fine upto 50,000/-
c) imprisonment upto 3 Years or fine upto 50,000/- or with both
d) Imprisonment upto 1 Year and fine upto 50,000/-
100. According to Sec.4 of A.P. Prohibition of Ragging Act, 1997 if a person causes
ragging or abets. ragging which causes the death, he shall be punished with -
a) Imprisonment upto 10 years and fine upto 50,000/-
b) Imprisonment of life and fine upto 50,000/-
c) Imprisonment upto 7 Years and fine upto 50,000/-
d) Imprisonment upto 3 Years and fine upto 50,000/-
Key:
1) C 2) B 3) B 4) C 5) D 6) A 7) D 8) D 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) D 13) B 13) D 14)
C 15) B 16) A 17) D 18) D 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) A 27)
B 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) B 32) D 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) A 39) A 40)
B 41) A 42) D 43) C 44) C 45) D 46) C 47) D 48) D 49) B 50) B 51) D 52) B 53)
B 54) D 55) A 56) A 57) B 58) A 59) C 60) B 61) D 62) A 63) B 64) C 65) B 66)
D 67) C 68) D 69) D 70) B 71) C 72) B 73) B 74) D 75) B 76) C 77) B 78) C 79)
C 80) C 81) A 82) C 83) B 84) A 85) C 86) D 87) B 88) B 89) D 90) B 91) A 92)
B 93) B 94) D 95) B 96) A 97) C 98) D 99) A 100) A
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